AAPC certification CPC exam targeted training

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Construction Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in implementing quality controls, managing nonconformances, implementing changes, monitoring and measuring quality, managing documentation, and facilitating continuous improvement. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Site Managers in ensuring effective monitoring and management of the construction site, promoting safety, and maintaining quality standards throughout the construction process.
Topic 2	Pre-contract Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in understanding project delivery, contract, and payment models, including identifying client types, contract types, payment models, and necessary documentation. It also measures the skills of Construction Estimators in understanding the project scope, schedule, and necessary resources.
Topic 3	Closeout Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in managing project records, reporting on quality performance, conducting lessons learned sessions, and ensuring the completion of all quality-related activities. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Project Managers in finalizing the project and ensuring a successful handover.
Topic 4	Procurement: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in establishing quality requirements for procurement, aligning trade partner requirements, and managing resources for inspections. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Procurement Managers in incorporating material control, resource identification, and mobilization strategies into the resource management process to ensure quality procurement.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q117-Q122):

NEW QUESTION # 117
View MR 099405
MR 099405
CC: Shortness of breath
HPI: 16-year-old female comes into the ED for shortness of breath for the last two days. She is an asthmatic.
Current medications being used to treat symptoms is Advair, which is not working and breathing is getting worse. Does not feel that Advair has been helping. Patient tried Albuterol for persistent coughing, is not helping. Coughing 10-15 minutes at a time. Patient has used the Albuterol 3x in the last 16 hrs. ED physician admits her to observation status.
ROS: No fever, no headache. No purulent discharge from the eyes. No earache. No nasal discharge or sore throat. No swollen glands in the neck. No palpitations. Dyspnea and cough. Some chest pain. No nausea or vomiting. No abdominal pain, diarrhea, or constipation.
PMH: Asthma
SH: Lives with both parents.
FH: Family hx of asthma, paternal side
ALLERGIES: PCN-200 CAPS. Allergies have been reviewed with child's family and no changes reported.
PE: General appearance: normal, alert. Talks in sentences. Pink lips and cheeks. Oriented. Well developed.
Well nourished. Well hydrated.
Eyes: normal. External eye: no hyperemia of the conjunctiva. No discharge from the conjunctiva Ears: general/bilateral. TM: normal. Nose: rhinorrhea. Pharynx/Oropharynx: normal. Neck: normal.
Lymph nodes: normal.
Lungs: before Albuterol neb, mode air entry b/l. No rales, rhonchi or wheezes. After Albuterol neb.
improvement of air entry b/l. Respiratory movements were normal. No intercostals inspiratory retraction was observed.
Cardiovascular system: normal. Heart rate and rhythm normal. Heart sounds normal. No murmurs were heard.
GI: abdomen normal with no tenderness or masses. Normal bowel sounds. No hepatosplenomegaly Skin: normal warm and dry. Pink well perfused Musculoskeletal system patient indicates lower to mid back pain when she lies down on her back and when she rolls over. No CVA tenderness.
Assessment: Asthma, acute exacerbation
Plan: Will keep her in observation overnight. Will administer oral steroids and breathing treatment. CXR ordered and to be taken in the morning.
What E/M code is reported?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
* 99222: This code is used for initial hospital care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a patient, which requires a detailed or comprehensive history, a detailed or comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity.
* The documentation shows a detailed history (including HPI, ROS, PMH, SH, and FH) and a detailed examination (covering multiple organ systems). The medical decision making involves the management of an acute asthma exacerbation, which includes admitting the patient to observation status, administering oral steroids, and planning for further diagnostic testing.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA

NEW QUESTION # 118
View MR 006399
MR 006399
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear
Postoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear
Procedure: Eustachian tube inflation
Anesthesia: General
Blood Loss: Minimal
Findings: Serous mucoid fluid
Complications: None
Indications: The patient is a 2-year-old who presented to the office with chronic otitis media refractory to medical management. The treatment will be eustachian tube inflation to remove the fluid. Risks, benefits, and alternatives were reviewed with the family, which include general anesthetic, bleeding, infection, tympanic membrane perforation, routine tubes, and need for additional surgery. The family understood these risks and signed the appropriate consent form.
Procedure in Detail: After the patient was properly identified, he was brought into the operating room and placed supine. The patient was prepped and draped in the usual fashion. General anesthesia was administered via inhalation mask, and after adequate sedation was achieved, a medium-sized speculum was placed in the right ear and cerumen was removed atraumatically using instrument with operative microscope. The tube is dilated, an incision is made to the tympanum and thick mucoid fluid was suctioned. The patient was awakened after having tolerated the procedure well and taken to the recovery room in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

A. 69433-RT
B. 69420-RT
C. 69436-RT
D. 69421-RT

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 119
A patient suffering from idiopathic dystonia is seen today and receives the following Botulinum injections:
three muscle injections in both upper extremities and seven injections in six paraspinal muscles.
How are these injections reported according to the CPT guidelines?

A. 64644, 64647 x 7
B. 64642-50, 64643-50, 64647
C. 64642 x 3, 64642 x 3, 64647 x 7
D. 64642, 64643, 64647

Answer: B

Explanation:
For the injections, CPT code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.

NEW QUESTION # 120
The knee joint consists of which three compartments?

A. Medial, lateral, and cochlea
B. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral
C. Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet
D. Medial, trochlea groove, and vestibular

Answer: B

Explanation:
The knee joint consists of three primary compartments:
1. Medial compartment: The inside part of the knee, which includes the femur and tibia interaction on the inner side.
2. Lateral compartment: The outside part of the knee, where the femur and tibia meet on the outer side.
3. Patellofemoral compartment: The area between the patella (kneecap) and the femur.
These three compartments are essential for knee joint stability and function, allowing movement and weight- bearing activities.
B: Trochlea groove and vestibular are not associated with knee anatomy.
C: Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet do not relate to knee compartments; the malleolus is in the ankle, scapula in the shoulder, and fibular facet is not part of the primary knee compartments.
D: Cochlea is unrelated to knee anatomy and refers to a part of the inner ear.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral.

NEW QUESTION # 121
The spleen is in what organ system?

A. Digestive
B. Nervous
C. Endocrine
D. Lymphatic

Answer: D

Explanation:
The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.
A: Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.
B: Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.
C: Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.
Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.

NEW QUESTION # 122
......

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AAPC certification CPC exam targeted training

Excellent CPC Exam Questions provide you the most reliable Training Brain Dumps - 2Pass4sure

AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q117-Q122):

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